Consent is (after age 18 anyhow) 90% of the law for a multitude of activities that without that consent are considered crimes. We wouldn't let rapists say they were "undocumented sex partners" would we? Even if they used a condom and were (relatively) non-violent? Is the analogy flawed in some obvious way that I missed?
How come "invading" America was wrong when we did it to the Indians, but is OK when Mexicans, Central Americans, etc are doing it to us?